January/2019 Braindump2go 400-051 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE New Updated Today! Following are some new 400-051 Real Exam Questions:
QUESTION 222 In Cisco IOS routers, which chipset is the PVDM2-32 DSP hardware based on?
A. C5441 B. C549 C. C5510 D. C5421 E. Broadcom 1500
QUESTION 223 Which two analog telephony signaling methods are most vulnerable to glare conditions? (Choose two.)
A. FXS Loop-start B. FXO Ground-start C. E&M Wink-start D. E&M Delay-dial E. E&M Immediate-start F. E&M Feature Group D
Answer: AE Explanation: The loop start signaling method is more common and is typically used by residential phone lines. When a voice port is configured with loop start signaling, the device (telephone) closes the circuit loop that signals the CO voice port to provide dial tone; an incoming call is signaled on the CO by supplying a predefined voltage on the line. The loop start signaling method has one main disadvantage in that it has no method of preventing both sides of the connection from attempting to seize the line at the same time; this condition is referred to as glare. Because of this, loop start signaling is typically not used on high demand circuits. With immediate-start, the calling side of the connection seizes the line by going off hook on the Elead and address information is sent using dual-tone multifrequency (DTMF) digits. Immediate start signaling is vulnerable to glare just like loop-start signaling.
QUESTION 224 Which digital modulation method is used to transmit caller ID information on analog FXS ports on Cisco IOS routers?
A. DTMF B. PSK C. FSK D. MF E. pulse dialing
QUESTION 225 How many signaling bits are there in each T1 time slot using channel associated signaling with Super Frame?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8 E. 12
QUESTION 226 What is the maximum one-way delay, in milliseconds, between any two Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers in a non-Session Management Edition cluster over an IP WAN?
A. 20 B. 40 C. 80 D. 160 E. 250
QUESTION 227 Which design restriction applies to Cisco Unified Communications Manager Session Management Edition clustering over the WAN deployment with extended round-trip times in Cisco Unified CM 9.1 and later releases?
A. SIP and H.323 intercluster trunks are supported. B. Only SIP trunk is supported. C. SIP trunks and H.323 gateways are supported. D. A minimum of 1.544 Mb/s bandwidth is required for all traffic between any two nodes in the cluster. E. Only RSVP agents can be configured and registered to the SME cluster as media resources.
QUESTION 228 Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager deployment model for clustering over the IP WAN mandates a primary and a backup subscriber at the same site?
A. multisite with centralized call processing B. multisite with distributed call processing C. local failover D. remote failover E. remote failover with Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express as SRST
QUESTION 229 Refer to the exhibit. All displayed devices are registered to the same Cisco Unified Communications Manager server and the phones are engaged in an active call. Assume that the provided configurations exist at the phone line level and multicast MOH is disabled cluster wide. Which description of what will happen when the user of IP phone A presses the Hold soft key is true?
A. IP phone B receives audio source 2 from MOH server A. B. IP phone B receives audio source 3 from MOH server A. C. IP phone B receives audio source 2 from MOH server B. D. IP phone B receives audio source 3 from MOH server B. E. IP phone B receives audio source 1 from MOH server A.
QUESTION 230 Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of inbound calls to 2001 before a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express system returns user busy tone to any additional calls?
A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 E. 7
QUESTION 231 When calls are placed by certain Cisco Unified Communications Manager supplementary services, the Local Route Group feature will be bypassed. Which of these does not belong to the supplementary services?
A. Call Back B. Call Forward C. Message Waiting indicator D. Mobility Follow Me E. Path Replacement
QUESTION 232 Which statement about whisper intercom implementation on Cisco Unified Communications Manager is correct?
A. Only one-way audio exists from the calling to the called party. B. The speaker volume on the called phone will be reduced automatically to avoid disturbance to other users nearby. C. The called party auto-answers the call in headset mode. D. Only one-way audio exists from the called to the calling party. E. Whisper Intercom is visual only, there is no audio.
QUESTION 71 Which statement describes the call recording operation on Cisco Unified Contact Center Express call agents that use Cisco IPPA?
A. Recording is facilitated via desktop monitoring on supported IP phones. B. Automatic recording is supported. C. Only G.711 codec is supported. D. Only SPAN port monitoring is supported. E. Call recording is not supported on Cisco Unified CCX call agents that use Cisco IPPA.
Answer: D Explanation: There is no mechanism created as of now to record the call so we first span and record it from packet capture or from third party software.
QUESTION 72 Which protocol that is used between Cisco IM and Presence and Cisco Unified Communications Manager is responsible for the exchange of phone state presence information?
A. AXL/SOAP B. CTI/QBE C. SIP/SIMPLE D. LDAP E. XMPP
Answer: C Answer: C Explanation: To provide interoperability between communications systems, SIP is the protocol leveraged. Enterprise Presence solutions need to provide for a uniform definition of the main communication services such as IM, voice, video, e-mail, web calendaring, and so on, while SIP delivers the necessary features.
QUESTION 73 Refer to the exhibit. In this high-availability Cisco IM and Presence deployment with three subclusters, the first user is assigned to server 1A; the second user is assigned to server 2A; and the third user is assigned to server 3A. Assume that the Cisco IM and Presence is set to Active/Standby mode, to which server should the fourth user be assigned?
A. 1A B. 3B C. 1B D. 2A E. 3A
Answer: A Explanation: This deployment model provides the same level of redundancy and high availability as outlined in the “Balanced Redundant High-Availability Deployment” section in this chapter. The only difference is that users are not deployed in a balanced fashion, but rather all reside on the primary server in the subcluster, and the backup server is there as a standby option if a node failure occurs.
QUESTION 74 Which two enterprise presence domains can federate with Cisco IM and Presence by using SIP? (Choose two.)
A. AOL B. Microsoft OCS C. IBM Sametime D. Cisco WebEx Connect E. Google Talk F. Cisco Unified Presence 8.X Releases
Answer: AB Explanation: Microsoft Lync and OCS support presence services with sip as well as AOL so to sip is easy to troubleshoot and feasible for signaling that’s why cisco federate these with sip.
QUESTION 75 Which statement describes the external database requirement for the Cisco IM and Presence permanent group chat feature?
A. All nodes in a Cisco IM and Presence cluster can share a physical external database. B. All nodes in a Cisco IM and Presence cluster can share a logical external database. C. Each node in a Cisco IM and Presence cluster must have its own physical external database. D. Each node in a Cisco IM and Presence cluster must have its own logical external database. E. An external database is not mandatory.
Answer: D Explanation: When you configure an external database entry on IM and Presence, you assign the external database to a node, or nodes, in your cluster as follows: For the Compliance feature, you require at least one external database per cluster. Depending on your deployment requirements, you can also configure a separate external database per node. For the Permanent Group Chat feature, you require a unique external database per node. Configure and assign a unique external database for each node in your cluster. If you deploy both the Permanent Group Chat and Compliance features on an IM and Presence node, you can assign the same external database to both features.
QUESTION 76 Which external database software is required for the Cisco IM and Presence compliance feature?
A. MySQL B. EnterpriseDB C. MSSQL D. SQLite E. PostgreSQL
QUESTION 77 Which Cisco IM and Presence service is responsible for logging all IM traffic that passes through the IM and Presence server to an external database for IM compliance?
A. Cisco Presence Engine B. Cisco Serviceability Reporter C. Cisco Sync Agent D. Cisco XCP Connection Manager E. Cisco XCP Message Archiver
Answer: E Explanation: The Cisco Unified Presence XCP Message Archiver service supports the IM Compliance feature. The IM Compliance feature logs all messages sent to and from the Cisco Unified Presence server, including point-to-point messages, and messages from adhoc (temporary) and permanent chat rooms for the Chat feature. Messages are logged to an external Cisco-supported database.
QUESTION 78 Which two statements about the Cisco UC on UCS specs-based virtualization support model are true? (Choose two.)
A. It has a configuration-based approach. B. It has a rule-based approach. C. It has less hardware flexibility compared to the third-party server specs-based support model. D. It has less hardware flexibility compared to the UC on UCS TRC support model. E. VMware vCenter is optional with this support model.
QUESTION 79 Which definition is included in a Cisco UC on UCS TRC?
A. required RAID configuration, when the TRC uses direct-attached storage B. configuration of virtual-to-physical network interface mapping C. step-by-step procedures for hardware BIOS, firmware, drivers, and RAID setup D. configuration settings and patch recommendations for VMware software E. server model and local components (CPU, RAM, adapters, local storage) by name only; part numbers are not included because they change over time
Answer: A Explanation: Definition of server model and local components (CPU, RAM, adapters, local storage) at the orderable part number level. Required RAID configuration (e.g. RAID5, RAID10, etc.) – including battery backup cache or SuperCap – when the TRC uses DAS storage Guidance on hardware installation and basic setup. Design, installation and configuration of external hardware is not included in TRC definition, such as: Configuration settings, patch recommendations or step by step procedures for VMware software are not included in TRC definition. Infrastructure solutions such as Vblock from Virtual Computing Environment may also be leveraged for configuration details not included in the TRC definition.
QUESTION 80 Which capability is support by LLDP-MED but not by Cisco Discovery Protocol?
A. LAN speed discovery B. network policy discovery C. location identification discovery D. power discovery E. trust extension
Answer: A Explanation: LLDP-MED supports both LAN speed and duplex discovery. Cisco Discovery Protocol supports duplex discovery only, but this limited support is not seen as a problem because if there is a speed mismatch, LLDP-MED and Cisco Discovery Protocol cannot be exchanged and thus cannot be used to detect the mismatch.
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QUESTION 61 Which message-handling behavior describes how Cisco Unity Connection Single Inbox works for Outlook users who do not have ViewMail installed?
A. Cisco Unity Connection voice messages are treated as emails without a WAV file attachment. B. Cisco Unity Connection voice messages are treated as voice messages. C. Cisco Unity Connection voice messages are treated as emails with a WAV file attachment. D. Cisco Unity Connection adds a Voice Outbox folder to the Outlook mailbox. E. Replies to Cisco Unity Connection voice messages are sent to Exchange as well as the Cisco Unity Connection mailbox for the recipient.
Answer: C Explanation: Cisco unity here acts as a imap server for yhe outlook user who don’t have view mail installed so user send their request as an imap client and unity will revert back with email and wav file attached to play.
QUESTION 62 When Single Inbox is configured, what will happen to an email message that was moved from any Outlook folder to the Voice Outbox folder?
A. The email message will be delivered to Cisco Unity Connection. B. The email message will be kept in the Voice Outbox folder. C. The move will fail because the operation is not supported. D. The email message will be moved to the Deleted Items folder. E. The email message will be permanently deleted and will not be retrievable.
Answer: D Explanation: Voice messages queue for delivery in the Voice Outbox folder that is why it shows in Deleted Items folder.
QUESTION 63 Which Cisco Unity Connection call handler greeting, when enabled, overrides all other greetings?
A. holiday B. closed C. internal D. busy E. alternate
Answer: E Explanation: An Alternate greeting might be enabled to override the Standard Greeting during certain times. Because it is a personal greeting used for specific purpose.
QUESTION 64 Which three Cisco Unity Connection call handler greetings can be overridden by the internal greeting? (Choose three.)
A. holiday B. alternate C. error D. busy E. closed F. standard
Answer: AEF Explanation: This greeting overrides the Standard, Closed, and Holiday greetings but only for internal callers or users defined in Cisco Unity Connection.Because the mentioned three greetings are defined for externals users.
QUESTION 65 Which Cisco Unity Connection call handler message is played when a caller enters a string of digits that is not found in the search scope?
A. error B. closed C. internal D. busy E. alternate
Answer: A Explanation: As soon as unity find the unexpected behavior it prompt the error message to the user.
QUESTION 66 What is the default treatment of a message that is left in the opening greeting default call handler in Cisco Unity Connection?
A. It will be sent to the mailbox for the Operator user. B. It will be sent to the Undeliverable Messages distribution list. C. It will be sent to the mailbox of the system administrator. D. It will be sent to the All Voicemail Users distribution list. E. It will be sent to the General Delivery Mailbox.
Answer: B Explanation: Default call handler is selected when we don’t assign any call handler to user and with this default call handler no specific user assigned so it don’t go to any specific mail box and goes to It will be sent to the Undeliverable Messages distribution list
QUESTION 67 Which statement about system broadcast messages in Cisco Unity Connection is true?
A. The user can skip a system broadcast message to listen to new messages first. B. The user can forward a system broadcast message only if it has been played in its entirety. C. System broadcast messages are synchronized between Cisco Unity Connection and Exchange when Single Inbox is configured. D. System broadcast messages do not trigger MWI. E. System broadcast messages are played immediately after users sign in and listen to message counts for new and saved messages.
Answer: D Explanation: System broadcast messages are played immediately after users log on to Cisco Unity Connection by phone even before they hear message counts for new and saved messages. After logging on, users hear how many system broadcast messages they have and Connection begins playing them.
QUESTION 68 Which Cisco Unified Contact Center Express data store contains user scripts, grammars, and documents?
A. configuration data store B. repository data store C. agent data store D. historical data store E. script data store
Answer: B Explanation: Unified CCX applications might use auxiliary files that interact with callers, such as scripts, pre-recorded prompts, grammars, and custom Java classes. Depending on each implementation, Unified CCX applications use some or all of the following file types The Unified CCX Server’s local disk prompt, grammar, and document files are synchronized with the central repository during Unified CCX engine startup and during run- time when the Repository datastore is modified.
QUESTION 69 Which Cisco Unified Contact Center Express script media step can invoke a VXML application to retrieve and play prompts on-demand from an off-box location?
A. Play Prompt step B. Voice Browser step C. Menu step D. Recording step E. Simple Recognition step
Answer: B Explanation: CRA Voice Browser is fully integrated with the CRA Engine. You can use scripts designed in the CRA Editor to extend VoiceXML applications by providing ICD (Integrated Contact Distribution) call control and resource management. For example, you can use VoiceXML to build a speech dialog as a front end to collect information from the caller. You can then pass this information to the CRA script, and when the agent receives the call, the information collected by VoiceXML will be available. You use the Voice Browser step in the Media palette of the CRA Editor to invoke a VoiceXML application. You can use the bundled voicebrowser.aef script as an example for creating scripts that invoke VoiceXML. (You can create custom scripts to execute other steps in addition to VoiceXML.)
QUESTION 70 Why has Cisco chosen to use the SCCP protocol in its IP telephony networks?
A. It is a peer to peer protocol. B. It uses intelligent endpoints. C. It is an industry standard, open protocol. D. It enables the use of a rich set of features.
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QUESTION 51 To which QoS tool category does compressed RTP belong?
A. classification B. marking C. link efficiency D. queuing E. prioritization
Answer: C Explanation: LLQ is a feature that provides a strict PQ to CBWFQ. LLQ enables a single strict PQ within CBWFQ at the class level. With LLQ, delay-sensitive data (in the PQ) is dequeued and sent first. In a VoIP with LLQ implementation, voice traffic is placed in the strict PQ.
QUESTION 52 How are queues serviced in Cisco IOS routers with the CBWFQ algorithm?
A. first-in, first-out B. weighted round robin based on assigned bandwidth C. strict priority based on assigned priority D. last-in, first-out E. weighted round robin based on assigned priority
Answer: B Explanation: Class Based Weighted Fair queuing is an advanced form of WFQ that supports user defined traffic classes I.e. one can define traffic classes based on match criteria like protocols, access control lists (ACLs), and input interfaces. A flow satisfying the match criteria for a class contributes the traffic for that particular defined class. A queue is allocated for each class, and the traffic belonging to that class is directed to the queue for that class.
QUESTION 53 In Cisco IOS routers that use low latency queuing, which algorithm is used to presort traffic going into the default queue?
A. first-in, first-out B. last-in, first-out C. weighted round robin D. fair queuing E. random processing
Answer: D Explanation: WFQ is a flow-based queuing algorithm used in Quality of Service (QoS) that does two things simultaneously: It schedules interactive traffic to the front of the queue to reduce response time, and it fairly shares the remaining bandwidth between high bandwidth flows. A stream of packets within a single session of a single application is known as flow or converstion. WFQ is a flow-based method that sends packets over the network and ensures packet transmission efficiency which is critical to the interactive traffic. This method automatically stabilizes network congestion between individual packet transmission flows.
QUESTION 54 Which statement describes the Cisco best practice recommendation about priority queue bandwidth allocation in relationship to the total link bandwidth when multiple strict priority LLQs are configured on the same router interface?
A. Each LLQ should be limited to one-third of the link bandwidth capacity. B. The sum of all LLQs should be limited to two-thirds of the link bandwidth capacity. C. The sum of all LLQs should be limited to one-half of the link bandwidth capacity. D. The sum of all LLQs should be limited to one-third of the link bandwidth capacity. E. Cisco does not recommend more than one strict priority LLQ per interface.
Answer: D Explanation: Cisco Technical Marketing testing has shown a significant decrease in data application response times when Real-Time traffic exceeds one-third of a link’s bandwidth capacity. Cisco IOS Software allows the abstraction (and, thus, configuration) of multiple LLQs. Extensive testing and production-network customer deployments have shown that limiting the sum of all LLQs to 33 percent is a conservative and safe design ratio for merging real-time applications with data applications.
QUESTION 55 To which Cisco enterprise medianet application class does Cisco TelePresence belong?
A. VoIP Telephony B. Real-time Interactive C. Multimedia Conferencing D. Broadcast Video E. Low Latency Data
Answer: B Explanation: Telepresence is used for video conferencing which can be done in Real-time so it is Real-time Interactive.
QUESTION 56 Refer to the exhibit. Assume that the serial interface link bandwidth is full T1. What is the maximum amount of bandwidth allowed for priority queuing of RTP packets with a DSCP value of EF?
A. 33% of 1.544 Mb/s B. 5% of 1.544 Mb/s C. 38% of 1.544 Mb/s D. 62% of 1.544 Mb/s E. 0% of 1.544 Mb/s
Answer: A Explanation: Since the use of the “priority” keyword was not used in this example 0% is the correct answer.
QUESTION 57 Which statement describes the key security service that is provided by the TLS Proxy function on a Cisco ASA appliance?
A. It provides interworking to ensure that external IP phone traffic is encrypted, even if the rest of the system is unencrypted. B. It only applies to encrypted voice calls where both parties utilize encryption. C. It manipulates the call signaling to ensure that all media is routed via the adaptive security appliance. D. It enables internal phones to communicate with external phones without encryption. E. It protects Cisco Unified Communications Manager from rogue soft clients and attackers on the data VLAN.
Answer: B Explanation: TLS Proxy is typically deployed in front of Cisco Unified Communications Manager and other unified communications application servers that utilize media encryption. TLS Proxy is not designed to provide remote-access encryption services for remote phones or client endpoints. Other solutions such as Cisco ASA Phone Proxy or IP Security/Secure Sockets Layer (IPsec/SSL) VPN services are more appropriate.TLS Proxy is not designed to provide a secure campus soft phone solution where the requirement is to provide secure data to phone VLAN traversal or for proxying connections to Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
QUESTION 58 Which two statements describe security services that are provided by the Phone Proxy function on a Cisco ASA appliance? (Choose two.)
A. It is supported only on phones that use SCCP. B. It is supported on an adaptive security appliance that runs in transparent mode. C. It provides interworking to ensure that the external IP phone traffic is encrypted, as long as the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster runs in secure mode. D. It provides a proxy of phone signaling, with optional use of NAT, to hide the Cisco Unified Communications Manager IP address from the public Internet. E. It proxies phone media so that internal phones are not directly exposed to the Internet. F. It supports IP phones that send phone proxy traffic through a VPN tunnel.
Answer: DE Explanation: TLS Proxy is typically deployed in front of Cisco Unified Communications Manager and other unified communications application servers that utilize media encryption. TLS Proxy is not designed to provide remote-access encryption services for remote phones or client endpoints. Other solutions such as Cisco ASA Phone Proxy or IP Security/Secure Sockets Layer (IPsec/SSL) VPN services are more appropriate. TLS Proxy is not designed to provide a secure campus soft phone solution where the requirement is to provide secure data to phone VLAN traversal or for proxying connections to Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
QUESTION 59 Which entity signs a Cisco IP phone LSC?
A. Godaddy.com Enrollment Server B. Manufacturer Certificate Authority C. Registration Authority D. Certificate Authority Proxy Function E. Cisco Certificate Authority
Answer: D Explanation: By default, LSC certificates are not installed on Cisco IP phones. Cisco IP phones that are required to use LSC certificates must be provisioned to allow TLS transactions before deployment in the field. LSC certificates can be provisioned to the Cisco IP phones through the Certificate Authority Proxy Function (CAPF) process. This process is completed using TLS and USB tokens coupled with the CTL client. Moreover, the Cisco ASA Phone Proxy feature can serve LSC certificates to the Cisco IP phones. Cisco IP phones will only work with the Cisco ASA Phone Proxy and will not establish secure connectivity with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
QUESTION 60 A Cisco Unity Connection administrator receives a name change request from a voice-mail user, whose Cisco Unity Connection user account was imported from Cisco Unified Communications Manager. What should the administrator do to execute this change?
A. Change the user data in the Cisco Unity Connection administration page, then use the Synch User page in Cisco Unity Connection administration to push the change to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. B. Change the user data in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager administration page, then use the Synch User page in Cisco Unity Connection administration to pull the changes from Cisco Unified CM. C. Change the user data in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager administration page, then use the Synch User page in Cisco Unified CM administration to push the change to Cisco Unity Connection. D. Change the user profile from Imported to Local on Cisco Unity Connection Administration, then edit the data locally on Cisco Unity Connection. E. Change the user data in Cisco Unity Connection and Cisco Unified Communications Manager separately.
Answer: B Explanation: As we can see user are getting synch from call manager so we first have to change the details of user on call manager so that user will synch the changes from call manager.
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QUESTION 41 Which two statements are requirements regarding hunt group options for B-ACD implementation on Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express routers? (Choose two.)
A. The ephone hunt group is mandatory. B. Either the ephone hunt group or the voice hunt group is acceptable. C. Hunt group members must be SCCP IP phones. D. Hunt group members can include both SCCP or SIP IP phones. E. Hunt group members must be SIP IP phones. F. The member hunting mechanism must be set to sequential.
QUESTION 42 Which call hunt mechanism is only supported by the voice hunt group in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router?
A. sequential B. peer C. longest idle D. parallel E. overlay
Answer: D Explanation: Parallel Hunt-Group, allows a user to dial a pilot number that rings 2-10 different extensions simultaneously. The first extension to answer gets connected to the caller while all other extensions will stop ringing. A timeout value can be set whereas if none of the extensions answer before the timer expires, all the extensions will stop ringing and one final destination number will ring indefinitely instead. The final number could be another voice hunt-group pilot number or mailbox The following features are supported for Voice Hunt-Group: Calls can be forwarded to Voice Hunt-Group Calls can be transferred to Voice Hunt-Group Member of Voice Hunt-Group can be SCCP, ds0-group, pri-group, FXS or SIP phone/trunk Max member of Voice Hunt-Group will be 32
QUESTION 43 Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express ephone button configuration separator enables overflow lines when the primary line for an overlay button is occupied by an active call?
A. o B. c C. w D. x E. :
Answer: D Explanation: x expansion/overflow, define additional expansion lines that are used when the primary line for an overlay button is occupied by an active call.
QUESTION 44 Which two statements describe characteristics of Cisco Unified Border Element high availability, prior to Cisco IOS release 15.2.3T, using a box-to-box redundancy configuration? (Choose two.)
A. It leverages HSRP for router redundancy and GLBP for load sharing between a pair of routers. B. Cisco Unified Border Element session information is check-pointed across the active and standby router pair. C. It supports media and signal preservation when a switchover occurs. D. Only media streams are preserved when a switchover occurs. E. It can leverage either HSRP or VRRP for router redundancy. F. The SIP media signal must be bound to the loopback interface.
QUESTION 45 Refer to the exhibit. From this NFAS-enabled T1 PRI configuration on a Cisco IOS router, how many bearer channels are available to carry voice traffic?
A. 91 B. 92 C. 93 D. 94 E. 95
Answer: D Explanation: In NFAS one channel is used for signaling so according to this we will have 94 channel for with bearer capability.
QUESTION 46 Refer to the exhibit. Assuming this NFAS-enabled T1 PRI configuration on a Cisco IOS router is fully functional, what will the controller T1 1/1 D-channel status be in the output of the show isdn status command?
A. MULTIPLE_FRAME_ESTABLISHED B. TEI_ASSIGNED C. AWAITING_ESTABLISHMENT D. STANDBY E. INITIALIZED
Answer: B Explanation: TEI_ASSIGNED, which indicates that the PRI does not exchange Layer 2 frames with the switch. Use the show controller t1 x command to first check the controller t1 circuit, and verify whether it is clean (that is, it has no errors) before you troubleshoot ISDN Layer 2 problem with the debug isdn q921.
QUESTION 47 Refer to the exhibit. In an effort to troubleshoot a caller ID delivery problem, a customer emailed you the voice port configuration on a Cisco IOS router. Which type of voice port is it?
A. FXS B. E&M C. BRI D. FXO E. DID
QUESTION 48 The iLBC codec operates at 38 bytes per sample per 20-millisecond interval. What is its codec bit rate in kilobits per second?
A. 6.3 B. 13.3 C. 15.2 D. 16 E. 24
Answer: C Explanation: The internet Low Bit Rate Codec (iLBC) is designed for narrow band speech and results in a payload bit rate of 13.33 kbits per second for 30-millisecond (ms) frames and 15.20 kbits per second for 20 ms frames. When the codec operates at block lengths of 20 ms, it produces 304 bits per block, which is packetized as defined in RFC 3952. Similarly, for block lengths of 30 ms it produces 400 bits per block, which is packetized as defined in RFC 3952.The iLBC has built-in error correction functionality to provide better performance in networks with higher packet loss
QUESTION 49 Assume 6 bytes for the Layer 2 header, 1 byte for the end-of-frame flag, and a 40-millisecond voice payload, how much bandwidth should be allocated to the strict priority queue for five VoIP calls that use a G.729 codec over a multilink PPP link?
A. 87 kb/s B. 134 kb/s C. 102.6 kb/s D. 77.6 kb/s E. 71.3 kb/s
Answer: A Explanation: Voice payloads are encapsulated by RTP, then by UDP, then by IP. A Layer 2 header of the correct format is applied; the type obviously depends on the link technology in use by each router interface: A single voice call generates two one-way RTP/UDP/IP packet streams. UDP provides multiplexing and checksum capability; RTP provides payload identification, timestamps, and sequence numbering.
QUESTION 50 Assume 20 bytes of voice payload, 6 bytes for the Layer 2 header, 1 byte for the end-of-frame flag, and the IP, UDP, and RTP headers are compressed to 2 bytes, how much bandwidth should be allocated to the strict priority queue for six VoIP calls that use a G.729 codec over a multilink PPP link with cRTP enabled?
A. 80.4 kb/s B. 91.2 kb/s C. 78.4 kb/s D. 69.6 kb/s E. 62.4 kb/s
Answer: D Explanation: Voice payloads are encapsulated by RTP, then by UDP, then by IP. A Layer 2 header of the correct format is applied; the type obviously depends on the link technology in use by each router interface: A single voice call generates two one-way RTP/UDP/IP packet streams. UDP provides multiplexing and checksum capability; RTP provides payload identification, timestamps, and sequence numbering.
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