2025/September Latest Braindump2go GH-500 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new Braindum2go GH-500 Exam Questions!

Question: 1
– [Configure and Use Code Scanning]
After investigating a code scanning alert related to injection, you determine that the input is properly sanitized using custom logic. What should be your next step?

A. Draft a pull request to update the open-source query.
B. Ignore the alert.
C. Open an issue in the CodeQL repository.
D. Dismiss the alert with the reason “false positive.”

Answer: D
Explanation:
When you identify that a code scanning alert is a false positive—such as when your code uses a custom sanitization method not recognized by the analysis—you should dismiss the alert with the reason “false positive.” This action helps improve the accuracy of future analyses and maintains the relevance of your security alerts. As per GitHub’s documentation:
“If you dismiss a CodeQL alert as a false positive result, for example because the code uses a sanitization library that isn’t supported, consider contributing to the CodeQL repository and improving the analysis.”
By dismissing the alert appropriately, you ensure that your codebase’s security alerts remain actionable and relevant.

Question: 2
– [Configure and Use Dependency Management]
When does Dependabot alert you of a vulnerability in your software development process?

A. When a pull request adding a vulnerable dependency is opened
B. As soon as a vulnerable dependency is detected
C. As soon as a pull request is opened by a contributor
D. When Dependabot opens a pull request to update a vulnerable dependency

Answer: B
Explanation:
Dependabot alerts are generated as soon as GitHub detects a known vulnerability in one of your dependencies. GitHub does this by analyzing your repository’s dependency graph and matching it against vulnerabilities listed in the GitHub Advisory Database. Once a match is found, the system raises an alert automatically without waiting for a PR or manual action.
This allows organizations to proactively mitigate vulnerabilities as early as possible, based on real- time detection.
Reference: GitHub Docs – About Dependabot alerts; Managing alerts in GitHub Dependabot

Question: 3
– [Configure and Use Dependency Management]
Which of the following is the most complete method for Dependabot to find vulnerabilities in third- party dependencies?

A. Dependabot reviews manifest files in the repository
B. CodeQL analyzes the code and raises vulnerabilities in third-party dependencies
C. A dependency graph is created, and Dependabot compares the graph to the GitHub Advisory database
D. The build tool finds the vulnerable dependencies and calls the Dependabot API

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2025/September Latest Braindump2go FCSS_CDS_AR-7.6 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new Braindum2go FCSS_CDS_AR-7.6 Exam Questions!

Question: 1
An administrator would like to use FortiCNP to keep track of sensitive data files located in the Amazon Web Services (AWS) S3 bucket and protect it from malware.
Which FortiCNP feature should the administrator use?

A. FortiCNP Threat Detection policies
B. FortiCNP Risk Management policies
C. FortiCNP Data Scan policies
D. FortiCNP Compliance policies

Answer: C

Question: 2
You are using Ansible to modify the configuration of several FortiGate VMs.
What is the minimum number of files you need to create, and in which file should you configure the target FortiGate IP addresses?

A. One playbook file for each target and the required tasks, and one inventory file.
B. One .yaml file with the target IP addresses, and one playbook file with the tasks.
C. One inventory file for each target device, and one playbook file.
D. One text file for all target devices, and one playbook file.

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2025/September Latest Braindump2go 100-160 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new Braindum2go 100-160 Exam Questions!

QUESTION 1
Why is it necessary to update firmware to the latest version?

A. To support the latest operating systems and applications
B. To patch firmware in the kernel of the operating system
C. To correct security holes and weaknesses
D. To explore new hardware features

Answer: C
Explanation:
Keeping firmware up to date is necessary to patch security vulnerabilities and weaknesses that could be exploited by threat actors. Vendors release firmware updates to correct security flaws, enhance stability, and ensure compatibility with updated security protocols.

QUESTION 2
How do threat actors launch ransomware attacks on organizations?

A. They implant malware to collect data from the corporation’s financial system.
B. They deface an organization’s public-facing website.
C. They lock data and deny access to the data until they receive money.
D. They secretly spy on employees and collect employees’ personal information.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Ransomware is a type of malware that denies access to data by encrypting it and demands payment from the victim to restore access. Threat actors may deliver ransomware through phishing emails, malicious downloads, or exploiting vulnerabilities in exposed systems.

QUESTION 3
You are planning to work from home. Your company requires that you connect to the company network through a VPN.
Which three critical functions do VPNs provide to remote workers? (Choose three.)

A. WAN management
B. Authorization of users
C. Integrity of data
D. Authentication of users
E. Confidentiality of information
F. Password management

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2025/September Latest Braindump2go FCP_FWF_AD-7.4 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new Braindum2go FCP_FWF_AD-7.4 Exam Questions!

Question: 1
Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator authorizes two FortiAP devices connected to this wireless controller However, one FortiAP is not able to broadcast the SSIDs. What must the administrator do to fix the issue?

A. Enable the radios on the FAP23JF FortiAP profile.
B. Replace the FortiAP device model to match the other device
C. Disable the override setting on the FortiAP that is preventing it from broadcasting SSIDs
D. Assign the FAP231F FortiAP profile to the problematic FortiAP device

Answer: A

Question: 2
How can you find the upstream and downstream link rates of a wireless client connected to a FortiAP?

A. On the FortiGate GUI using the WiFi Client monitor
B. On the FortiAP CLI using the cw_diag ksta command
C. On the FortiGate CL! using the diagnose wireless-controller wlac -d sta command
D. On the FortiAP CLI using the cw_diag -d sea command

Answer: B

Question: 3
Which two threats on wireless networks are detected by WIDS? (Choose two.)

A. Brute-force dictionary attacks
B. Unauthorized wireless connection
C. Rogue access points
D. WPA2 authentication vulnerabilities

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2025/August Latest Braindump2go GH-100 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new Braindum2go GH-100 Exam Questions!

Question: 1
You have subscribed to GitHub Premium Support, and you need to submit a support ticket. GitHub Premium Support can help you with:

A. writing scripts.
B. installing GitHub Enterprise Server.
C. setting up hardware.
D. integrating with third-party applications.

Answer: B
Explanation:
GitHub Premium Support includes assistance with installing and using GitHub Enterprise Server, ensuring your deployment is configured correctly and any installation issues are resolved.

Question: 2
You need to contact GitHub Premium Support. What are valid reasons for submitting a support ticket? (Each answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A. license renewal
B. hardware setup issues or errors
C. business impact from security issues within your organization
D. outages on GitHub.com affecting core Git functionality

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July/2025 Latest Braindump2go FCP_FMG_AD-7.6 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new Braindump2go FCP_FMG_AD-7.6 Real Exam Questions!


Question: 1
You want to let multiple administrators work in the same ADOM without creating configuration conflicts.
What is the best and the most effective solution to apply?

A. Configure RADIUS authentication to assign ADOM roles to each user.
B. Enable workflow mode, which is the only way to prevent concurrent configuration conflicts.
C. Assign administrators with JSON API access to the FortiManager.
D. Activate workspace mode in the ADOM settings.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Activating workspace mode in the ADOM settings allows multiple administrators to work concurrently in the same ADOM by isolating their configuration changes in separate workspaces, preventing conflicts and enabling effective collaboration.

Question: 2
Refer to the exhibit.

If the monitored interface for the primary FortiManager device fails, what must you do to maintain high availability (HA)?

A. The FortiManager HA failover is transparent to administrators and does not require any additional action.
B. Manually promote one of the working secondary devices to the primary role: and reboot the original primary device to remove the peer IP address of the failed device.
C. Reconfigure the primary device to remove the peer IP address of the failed device from its configuration.
D. Check the integrity database of the primary device to force a secondary device to become the new primary with all active interfaces.

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July/2025 Latest Braindump2go VMCE_V12 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new Braindump2go VMCE_V12 Real Exam Questions!

QUESTION 161
During installation of Backup & Replication on a Windows 2008 R2 server with eight CPUs and 16GB of RAM, an error occurs. What could be the cause of this?

A. The Windows firewall is enabled and required ports are not open.
B. Memory is too low.
C. Windows 2008 R2 is not a supported version.
D. There are not enough CPU resources.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Veeam Backup & Replication v12 requires Windows Server 2012 or later as its installation platform. Attempting to install on Windows 2008 R2 will fail because that OS is no longer supported by Veeam.

QUESTION 162
A customer has a large VMware vSphere virtual machine with a custom operating system with intense I/O. The customer claims the backup process is causing the virtual machine to stun, despite a very performant production environment and Veeam proxies as powerful physical machines.
What is the correct solution to deploy?

A. Deploy a high performance Veeam repository to decrease the backup time.
B. Use Continuous Data Protection replication to decrease RPO and process I/O operations as soon as they are performed.
C. Use Backup from Storage Snapshots to decrease the VMware vSphere snapshot commit time.
D. Deploy a Veeam Agent to leverage volume-level backup and avoid using proxy servers.

Answer: C
Explanation:
By offloading snapshot creation and commit to the storage array, Veeam drastically shortens the VMware snapshot commit phase and eliminates prolonged VM stun during high-I/O backups.

QUESTION 163
Executive management would like a list of all virtual machines that are not protected by Veeam Backup & Replication. Which component can provide this information?

A. Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager
B. Veeam Service Provider Console
C. Veeam Backup & Replication Console
D. Veeam ONE

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July/2025 Latest Braindump2go CWSP-208 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new Braindump2go CWSP-208 Real Exam Questions!

Question: 1
Given: John Smith uses a coffee shop’s Internet hot-spot (no authentication or encryption) to transfer funds between his checking and savings accounts at his bank’s website. The bank’s website uses the HTTPS protocol to protect sensitive account information. While John was using the hot-spot, a hacker was able to obtain John’s bank account user ID and password and exploit this information.
What likely scenario could have allowed the hacker to obtain John’s bank account user ID and password?

A. John’s bank is using an expired X.509 certificate on their web server. The certificate is on John’s Certificate Revocation List (CRL), causing the user ID and password to be sent unencrypted.
B. John uses the same username and password for banking that he does for email. John used a POP3 email client at the wireless hot-spot to check his email, and the user ID and password were not encrypted.
C. John accessed his corporate network with his IPSec VPN software at the wireless hot-spot. An IPSec VPN only encrypts data, so the user ID and password were sent in clear text. John uses the same username and password for banking that he does for his IPSec VPN software.
D. The bank’s web server is using an X.509 certificate that is not signed by a root CA, causing the user ID and password to be sent unencrypted.
E. Before connecting to the bank’s website, John’s association to the AP was hijacked. The attacker intercepted the HTTPS public encryption key from the bank’s web server and has decrypted John’s login credentials in near real-time.

Answer: B

Question: 2
What type of WLAN attack is prevented with the use of a per-MPDU TKIP sequence counter (TSC)?

A. Weak-IV
B. Forgery
C. Replay
D. Bit-flipping
E. Session hijacking

Answer: C

Question: 3
What 802.11 WLAN security problem is directly addressed by mutual authentication?

A. Wireless hijacking attacks
B. Weak password policies
C. MAC spoofing
D. Disassociation attacks
E. Offline dictionary attacks
F. Weak Initialization Vectors

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July/2025 Latest Braindump2go AZ-120 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new Braindump2go AZ-120 Real Exam Questions!

QUESTION 382
You have a Hyper-V generation 2 virtual machine image that was prepared by running sysprep.exe.
You plan to use the image as part of an SAP application server deployment on Azure.
You need to ensure that you can deploy the image as an Azure virtual machine.
What should you do first?

A. Convert the virtual disk to a dynamically expanding disk.
B. Use Azure Storage Explorer to upload the VHDX file to a storage account.
C. Convert the VHDX disk image to a VHD disk image.
D. Run azcopy to upload the VHDX file to a managed disk.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Before you upload a Windows virtual machine (VM) from on-premises to Azure, you must prepare the virtual hard disk (VHD or VHDX). Azure supports both generation 1 and generation 2 VMs that are in VHD file format and that have a fixed-size disk. The maximum size allowed for the OS VHD on a generation 1 VM is 2 TB.
You can convert a VHDX file to VHD, convert a dynamically expanding disk to a fixed-size disk, but you can’t change a VM’s generation.

QUESTION 383
You have an Azure subscription.
You plan to deploy an SAP landscape that will store /sapmnt on an NFS Azure file share.
You need to recommend a backup solution for /sapmnt. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Provide recoverability if the file share is deleted.
– Minimize administrative effort.
What should you include in the recommendation?

A. AzCopy
B. Azure Backup
C. fpsync
D. snapshots

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July/2025 Latest Braindump2go 2V0-11.25 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new Braindump2go 2V0-11.25 Real Exam Questions!

QUESTION 107
What is a symptom of an issue with vSphere HA?

A. Snapshots cannot be created or consolidated.
B. VMs are not restarted after a host failure.
C. VMs are not being migrated using vMotion.
D. Hosts frequently disconnect from vCenter Server.

Answer: B

QUESTION 108
Which feature of VMware Data Services Manager enhances security and compliance?

A. Automated workload migration
B. Network traffic encryption
C. Storage replication
D. Database level authentication

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July/2025 Latest Braindump2go 300-710 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new Braindump2go 300-710 Real Exam Questions!

QUESTION 413
After a network security breach, an engineer must strengthen the security of the corporate network. Upper management must be regularly updated with a high-level overview of any occurring network threats. Which access must the engineer provide upper management to view the required data from Cisco Secure Firewall Management Center?

A. Analysis > Status with a sliding time window of one day
B. Events by priority and classification and set a sliding time window of one day
C. Reports with a daily recurring task that generates based on the network risk report template
D. Security Intelligence Statistics dashboard set to Show the Last option to one day

Answer: C

QUESTION 414
An engineer is troubleshooting the upgrade of a Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense device on the Secure Firewall Management Center 7.0 GUI. The engineer wants to collect the upgrade data and logs. Which two actions must the engineer take? (Choose two.)

A. View the system and troubleshooting details.
B. Select the Secure Firewall Threat Defense device properties.
C. Select the Secure Firewall Management Center device.
D. Access the Health Events page.
E. Access the Health Monitor page.

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June/2025 Latest Braindump2go XDR-Engineer Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new Braindump2go XDR-Engineer Real Exam Questions!

Q1
[Data Ingestion and Integration]
An administrator wants to employ reusable rules within custom parsing rules to apply consistent log field extraction across multiple data sources. Which section of the parsing rule should the administrator use to define those reusable rules in Cortex XDR?

A. RULE
B. INGEST
C. FILTER
D. CONST

Answer: D

Q2
[Data Ingestion and Integration]
What will be the output of the function below?
L_TRIM(“a* aapple”, “a”)

A. ‘ aapple’
B. ” aapple”
C. “pple”
D. ” aapple-“

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June/2025 Latest Braindump2go AI-900 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new Braindump2go AI-900 Real Exam Questions!

QUESTION 252
Which three actions improve the quality of responses returned by a generative Al solution that uses GPT-3.5? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct answer is worth one point.

A. Add grounding data to prompts.
B. Provide additional examples to prompts.
C. Modify tokenization.
D. Add training data to prompts.
E. Modify system messages.

Answer: BDE

QUESTION 253
Which Azure Al Language feature can be used to retrieve data, such as dates and people’s names, from social media posts?

A. language detection
B. speech recognition
C. key phrase extraction
D. entity recognition

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June/2025 Latest Braindump2go AI-900 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new Braindump2go AI-900 Real Exam Questions!

QUESTION 252
Which three actions improve the quality of responses returned by a generative Al solution that uses GPT-3.5? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct answer is worth one point.

A. Add grounding data to prompts.
B. Provide additional examples to prompts.
C. Modify tokenization.
D. Add training data to prompts.
E. Modify system messages.

Answer: BDE

QUESTION 253
Which Azure Al Language feature can be used to retrieve data, such as dates and people’s names, from social media posts?

A. language detection
B. speech recognition
C. key phrase extraction
D. entity recognition

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June/2025 Latest Braindump2go CNX-001 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new Braindump2go CNX-001 Real Exam Questions!

Question: 1
HOTSPOT
New devices were deployed on a network and need to be hardened. INSTRUCTIONS
Use the drop-down menus to define the appliance-hardening techniques that provide the most secure solution.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

Answer:

Question: 2
SIMULATION
A network administrator needs to resolve connectivity issues in a hybrid cloud setup. Workstations and VMs are not able to access Application
A. Workstations are able to access Server B.
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on workstations, VMs, firewalls, and NSGs to troubleshoot and gather information. Type help in the terminal to view a list of available commands.
Select the appropriate device(s) requiring remediation and identify the associated issue(s).
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

Answer: See explanation below.

Explanation:
Firewalls → VPN tunnel down
The IPsec tunnel between on-prem Firewall 1 and cloud Firewall 2 (ipip0/ipip2) is down, so no traffic can traverse to the cloud.
Application NSG → Misconfigured rule
There’s a “block” rule for 10.3.9.0/24 → 192.2.1.0/24, preventing legitimate on-prem clients from reaching Application A.

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