2025/November Latest Braindump2go 300-420 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new Braindump2go 300-420 Real Exam Questions!

QUESTION 1
Which routes does the overlay management protocol advertise in an SD-WAN overlay?

A. underlay, MPLS, and overlay
B. primary, backup, and load-balanced
C. prefix, TLOC, and service
D. Internet, MPLS, and backup

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A network solution is being designed for a company that connects to multiple Internet service providers. Which Cisco proprietary BGP path attribute will influence outbound traffic flow?

A. Local Preference
B. MED
C. Weight
D. AS Path
E. Community

Answer: C
Explanation:
Weight is Cisco proprietary and is the first decision of all path attributes to influence outbound traffic on a singular router. Weight is non-transitive and will only influence routes as they leave that device.

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP has been configured on all links. The spoke nodes have been configured as EIGRP stubs, and the WAN links to R3 have higher bandwidth and lower delay than the links to R4.
When a link failure occurs at the R1-R2 link, what happens to traffic on R1 that is destined for a subnet attached to R2?

A. R1 has no route to R2 and drops the traffic
B. R1 load-balances across the paths through R3 and R4 to reach R2
C. R1 forwards the traffic to R3, but R3 drops the traffic
D. R1 forwards the traffic to R3 in order to reach R2

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2025/November Latest Braindump2go 300-415 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new Braindump2go 300-415 Real Exam Questions!

QUESTION 1
Which device information is required on PNP/ZTP to support the zero touch onboarding process?

A. serial and chassis numbers
B. interface IP address
C. public DNS entry
D. system IP address

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/SDWAN/sd-wan-wan-edge-onboarding-deploy-guide-2020jan.pdf

QUESTION 2
Which configuration step is taken on vManage after WAN Edge list is uploaded to support the on-boarding process before the device comes online?

A. Verify the device certificate
B. Enable the ZTP process
C. Set the device as valid
D. Send the list to controllers

Answer: C+
Explanation:

https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/SDWAN/sdwan-wan-edge-onboarding-deploy-guide-2020nov.pdf

QUESTION 3
Which SD-WAN component is configured to enforce a policy to redirect branch-to-branch traffic toward a network service such as a firewall or IPS?

A. vBond
B. vSmart
C. WAN Edge
D. Firewall

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2025/November Latest Braindump2go 300-410 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new Braindump2go 300-410 Real Exam Questions!

QUESTION 409
An engineer is creating a policy that overrides normal routing behavior.if the route to a destination of 10.100.100.0/24 is withdrawn from the routing Table, the policy must direct traffic to a next hop of 10.1 1.1. if the route is present in the routing table, then normal forwarding must occur.
Which
configuration meets the requirements?

A. access-list 100 permit ip any any
!
route-map POLICY permit 10
match ip address 100
set ip next-hop recursive 10.1.1.1
B. access-list 100 permit ip any 10.100.100.0 0.0.0.255 !
Route-map POLICY permit 10
match ip address 100
set ip default next-hop 10.1.1.1
C. access-list 100 permit ip any 10.100.100.0 0.0.0.255 !
route-map POLICY permit 10
match ip address 100
set ip next-hop 10.1.1.1
!
route map POLICY permit 20
D. access-list 100 permit ip any 10.100.100.0 0.0.0.255 !
route map POLICY permit 10
match ip address 100
Set ip next-hop recursive 10.1.1.1
!
route-map POLICY permit 20

Answer: D

QUESTION 410
Refer to the exhibit. After a new regional office is set up, not all guests can access the internet via guest Wi Fi. Clients are getting the correct IP address from guest Wi-Fi VLAN 364.
Which action resolves the issue ?

A. Allow 10.66.46.0/23 in the outbound ACL
B. Allow DNS traffic through the outbound ACL
C. Allow DNS traffic through the inbound ACL
D. Allow 10.66.46.0/23 in the inbound ACL

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QUESTION 1560
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge?
SW1: 0С:0А:05:22:05:97
SW2: 0C:0A:A8:1A:3C:9D
SW3: 0С:0А:18:81:ВЗ:19
SW4: 0С:4А:82:56:35:78

A. SW1
B. SW2
C. SW3
D. SW4

Answer: C
Explanation:
You can manipulate the Root Bridge Election by setting Bridge priority on your switches. The default value is 32768, and the lowest number is preferred. In the case of a tie, the switch with the lowest MAC address will be selected.

QUESTION 1561
Which alternative to password authentication is implemented to allow enterprise devices to log in to the corporate network?

A. 90-day renewal policies
B. magic links
C. one-time passwords
D. digital certificates

Answer: D

QUESTION 1562
Refer to the exhibit. The user has connectivity to devices on network 192.168.3.0/24 but cannot reach users on the network 10.10.1.0/24. What is the first step to verify connectivity?

A. Is the internet reachable?
B. Is the default gateway reachable?
C. Is the DNS server reachable?
D. Is the IPv4 address reachable?

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2025/November Latest Braindump2go 200-201 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new Braindump2go 200-201 Real Exam Questions!

QUESTION 390
Which statement describes indicators of attack?

A. A malicious file is detected by the AV software.
B. Internal hosts communicate with countries outside of the business range.
C. Phishing attempts on an organization are blocked by mail AV.
D. Critical patches are missing.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Indicators of Attack (IoA) refer to observable behaviors or artifacts that suggest a security breach or ongoing attack.
When internal hosts communicate with countries outside the business range, it may indicate data exfiltration or command-and-control communication to an external threat actor. Unlike Indicators of Compromise (IoC) which indicate that a system has already been compromised, IoAs are often used to identify malicious activity in its early stages. Monitoring for unusual outbound connections is a crucial aspect of detecting advanced persistent threats (APTs) and other sophisticated attacks.

QUESTION 391
Which type of data is used to detect anomalies in the network?

A. statistical data
B. metadata
C. transaction data
D. alert data

Answer: A
Explanation:
Statistical data is crucial for detecting anomalies within a network because it provides a baseline of normal behavior.
Anomaly detection involves comparing current network data against historical statistical data to identify deviations from expected patterns.
This method helps in identifying unusual activities that could signify a security threat, such as unusual login attempts, data transfers, or access patterns. Statistical data analysis tools use metrics such as mean, variance, and standard deviation to flag anomalies, aiding in proactive threat detection.

QUESTION 392
What is data encapsulation?

A. Data is encrypted backwards, which makes it unusable.
B. Multiple hosts can be supported with only a few public IP addresses.
C. A protocol of the sending host adds additional data to the packet header.
D. Browsing history is erased automatically with every session.

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2025/November Latest Braindump2go 200-901 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new Braindump2go 200-901 Real Exam Questions!

QUESTION 454
Which CI/CD component allows for the storing of code packages and enables the testing of the same code that is running on the live system?

A. Artifactory
B. Jira
C. ITSM
D. Git

Answer: A
Explanation:
Git is used for source code and Artifactory is used for the binaries which go with the source code.

QUESTION 455
A development team needs to containerize an application named ‘custapp4o3p2r6d3s6w7x6t9’. A Dockerfile has been created and now the docker build command must be run using the current folder to find the Dockerfile, build the image and create a local repository named ‘custapp4d5c-repo’ that points to that image. Which command must be used?

A. docker build custapp4d5c-repo Dockerfile
B. docker build -t acustapp4d5c-repo Dockerfile.txt
C. docker build custapp4d5c-repo -f Dockerfile.txt
D. docker build -t custapp4d5c-repo -f Dockerfile

Answer: D
Explanation:
The -t flag is used to specify the name (and optionally a tag) of the image.
The -f flag is used to specify the location of the Dockerfile.
The . at the end represents the build context, which is the current directory.

QUESTION 456
A web app must be accessible from computers and mobile devices. It must maintain the same data structure on both types of devices. What is the advantage of using the MVC design pattern for this app?

A. to asynchronously update the graphical interface
B. to define different algorithms for data manipulation
C. to separate the logic of the graphic interface of the different devices
D. to have only one instance of the objects that contain the data

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2025/September Latest Braindump2go 100-160 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new Braindum2go 100-160 Exam Questions!

QUESTION 1
Why is it necessary to update firmware to the latest version?

A. To support the latest operating systems and applications
B. To patch firmware in the kernel of the operating system
C. To correct security holes and weaknesses
D. To explore new hardware features

Answer: C
Explanation:
Keeping firmware up to date is necessary to patch security vulnerabilities and weaknesses that could be exploited by threat actors. Vendors release firmware updates to correct security flaws, enhance stability, and ensure compatibility with updated security protocols.

QUESTION 2
How do threat actors launch ransomware attacks on organizations?

A. They implant malware to collect data from the corporation’s financial system.
B. They deface an organization’s public-facing website.
C. They lock data and deny access to the data until they receive money.
D. They secretly spy on employees and collect employees’ personal information.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Ransomware is a type of malware that denies access to data by encrypting it and demands payment from the victim to restore access. Threat actors may deliver ransomware through phishing emails, malicious downloads, or exploiting vulnerabilities in exposed systems.

QUESTION 3
You are planning to work from home. Your company requires that you connect to the company network through a VPN.
Which three critical functions do VPNs provide to remote workers? (Choose three.)

A. WAN management
B. Authorization of users
C. Integrity of data
D. Authentication of users
E. Confidentiality of information
F. Password management

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December/2023 New Braindump2go 300-710 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new Braindump2go 300-710 Real Exam Questions!

QUESTION 298
A network administrator reviews the attack risk report and notices several low-impact attacks. What does this type of attack indicate?

A. All attacks are listed as low until manually recategorized.
B. The host is not vulnerable to those attacks.
C. The host is not within the administrator’s environment.
D. The attacks are not dangerous to the network.

Answer: D

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QUESTION 293
Which security architecture component offers streamlined security operations, ease of use, and visibility across all network security elements, independent of location or form factor?

A. threat-centric protection
B. integrated actionable intelligence
C. distributed enforcement
D. central command and control

Answer: D
Explanation:
Distributed Enforcement: Support for any form factor in any location. Network security services must be available in any location, in any form factor, and in any combination. This allows the security team to apply granular network security policies to network segments, flows, applications, or specific groups of users.

 

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March/2023 Latest Braindump2go 300-430 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new Braindump2go 300-430 Real Exam Questions!

QUESTION 69
Which three characteristics of a rogue AP pose a high security risk? (Choose three.)

A. open authentication
B. high RSSI
C. foreign SSID
D. accepts clients
E. low RSSI
F. distant location

Answer: ACD
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/74/configuration/guides/consolida ted/b_cg74_CONSOLIDATED/b_cg74_CONSOLIDATED_chapter_010111001.html

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QUESTION 12
A Webex Teams bot receives a Webhook payload, which notifies the bot that a message was created in a space. Which two API requests must be issued for the bot to answer the author of the message? (Choose two.)

A. POST /v1/messages
B. GET /v1/messages/{messageId}
C. GET /v1/webhooks/{webhookId}
D. PUT /v1/messages/{messageId}
E. POST /v1/webhooks

Answer: AC

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QUESTION 51
After configuring a Cisco CallManager Express with Cisco Unity Express, inbound calls from the PSTN SIP trunk receive a ring tone for 20 seconds and then a busy signal instead of voicemail. Which configuration fixes this problem?

A. Router(config)# voice service voip
Router(conf-voi-serv)#allow-connections h323 to h323
B. Router(config)#dial-peer voice 2 voip
Router(config-dial-peer)#no vad
C. Router(config)# voice service voip
Router(conf-voi-serv)#allow-connections voice-mail mod
D. Router(config)# voice service voip
Router(conf-voi-serv)#no supplementary-service sip moved-temporarily

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://community.cisco.com/t5/ip-telephony-and-phones/help-please-callers-get-busy-signal-instead-of-aim-cue-voicemail/td-p/1911590

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QUESTION 58
Which DNS record and port combination must be resolved externally for Mobile and Remote Access to be used?

A. _collab-edge on port 8443
B. _cisco-uds-edge on port 5061
C. _collab-edge on port 5061
D. _cisco-uds on port 8443

Answer: A
Explanation:
8443 is required from the public IP address of the expressway for collab-edge SRV records.

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