July/2025 Latest Braindump2go VMCE_V12 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new Braindump2go VMCE_V12 Real Exam Questions!
QUESTION 161
During installation of Backup & Replication on a Windows 2008 R2 server with eight CPUs and 16GB of RAM, an error occurs. What could be the cause of this?
A. The Windows firewall is enabled and required ports are not open.
B. Memory is too low.
C. Windows 2008 R2 is not a supported version.
D. There are not enough CPU resources.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Veeam Backup & Replication v12 requires Windows Server 2012 or later as its installation platform. Attempting to install on Windows 2008 R2 will fail because that OS is no longer supported by Veeam.
QUESTION 162
A customer has a large VMware vSphere virtual machine with a custom operating system with intense I/O. The customer claims the backup process is causing the virtual machine to stun, despite a very performant production environment and Veeam proxies as powerful physical machines.
What is the correct solution to deploy?
A. Deploy a high performance Veeam repository to decrease the backup time.
B. Use Continuous Data Protection replication to decrease RPO and process I/O operations as soon as they are performed.
C. Use Backup from Storage Snapshots to decrease the VMware vSphere snapshot commit time.
D. Deploy a Veeam Agent to leverage volume-level backup and avoid using proxy servers.
Answer: C
Explanation:
By offloading snapshot creation and commit to the storage array, Veeam drastically shortens the VMware snapshot commit phase and eliminates prolonged VM stun during high-I/O backups.
QUESTION 163
Executive management would like a list of all virtual machines that are not protected by Veeam Backup & Replication. Which component can provide this information?
A. Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager
B. Veeam Service Provider Console
C. Veeam Backup & Replication Console
D. Veeam ONE
Answer: D
Explanation:
Veeam ONE provides advanced monitoring and reporting features, including reports that identify unprotected virtual machines. It can generate a list of VMs that are not covered by any backup or replication jobs, helping organizations ensure comprehensive data protection.
QUESTION 164
An administrator needs to review reports that show which servers in the environment are being successfully backed up and which ones are not.
Which component of the Veeam Data Platform accomplishes this?
A. Veeam Data Labs
B. Veeam Recovery Orchestrator
C. Veeam ONE
D. Veeam Backup & Replication
Answer: C
Explanation:
Veeam ONE delivers comprehensive monitoring and reporting, including dashboards and scheduled reports that clearly indicate which servers are successfully backed up and which are not.
QUESTION 165
After performing a failover to a disaster recovery site, it is decided that the virtual machines need to be failed back to the original production site, and that any changes made during the failover should be discarded.
Which option should be used?
A. Commit tailback
B. Failback
C. Undo failover
D. Undo failback
Answer: C
Explanation:
Undo failover — this operation switches the workload back to the original source VM and discards any changes made on the replica during the failover
QUESTION 166
A Veeam administrator with a large production infrastructure needs to justify to management why a request to purchase additional hardware resources should be granted when the resources will only be utilized off hours during backup time. The administrator decides a graphical representation will improve the likelihood that the request is approved.
Which Veeam ONE feature below provides the right details?
A. Business View
B. Jobs Calendar
C. Deployment Projects
D. Threat Center
Answer: B
Explanation:
Veeam ONE’s Jobs Calendar gives you a graphical, time‐based view of all backup, replication and other Veeam job schedules, so you can clearly illustrate exactly when (and how heavily) your infrastructure is taxed during off‐hours. That visual timeline is perfect for showing management that the new hardware capacity will only be used in those defined backup windows.
QUESTION 167
After a fault in the primary site, a customer now has their secondary site as the production site, which is running backups. After some time, the former primary site is restored with its backup repository still intact and containing older but valid backups. To comply with the 3-2-1-1-0 rule, a backup copy to the first site must be performed.
Which is the best approach to ensure the first copy will be as quick as possible?
A. Re-initialize the target repository to start fresh and get better write performance.
B. Set a lower retention for the backup copy job so less data will be copied.
C. Use backup copy job mapping to use the old backup data as seed.
D. Use WAN accelerators to optimize the data transfer size.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The quickest way to get your first copy up-to-date is to seed it from the existing backups already sitting in that repository. By using backup copy job mapping, Veeam will detect and “map” the old backup files as the job’s seed, so only the new deltas actually need to be transferred. This avoids copying the full chain over the network and gets your copy job caught up in minimal time.
QUESTION 168
A customer has purchased an Amazon Simple Storage Service compatible object storage system that will replace the existing block storage repository. The vendor best practices recommends reducing the number of generated objects as much as possible to maintain the best level of performance.
What next step should the system engineer take?
A. Increase the block size to 4MB in the Advanced Backup Job settings
B. Set the incremental with synthetic full backup policy in the Advanced Backup Job settings.
C. Enable the “Align backup file data blocks” option in the Storage Compatibility settings.
D. Increase the deduplication level to high in the Advanced Backup Job settings.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The best way to minimize the total number of objects created in your S3-compatible repository is to enable block-boundary alignment on the backup files. This causes Veeam to align and pack data into larger, storage-friendly chunks before writing, reducing object count and improving overall performance.
QUESTION 169
Which two ways can a Microsoft SQL database be backed up to a Veeam repository using tools native to Microsoft SQL? (Choose two.)
A. Use Veeam Plug-in for Microsoft SQL.
B. Use Veeam Agent for Microsoft SQL.
C. Use Enterprise Manager s self-service backup capabilities.
D. Use application-aware processing for Microsoft SQL.
Answer: AD
Explanation:
Use the Veeam Plug-in for Microsoft SQL Server
This installs directly into SQL Server Management Studio and leverages SQL’s own backup engine (full, differential, log, copy-only, etc.) to write backups straight to your Veeam repositories.
Use application-aware processing for Microsoft SQL
In a standard VM backup job you enable “application-aware processing,” which uses Microsoft’s VSS writer for SQL Server to quiesce the databases and capture a transactionally-consistent image — those VSS-based backups then land in your Veeam repository.
QUESTION 170
A customer wants to set up a Scale-out Backup Repository. Due to malware concerns, immutability is recommended. An on-premises server can be used to hold primary backups, but it can only hold 21 days of backups. A copy of all backups should be stored in Amazon Web Services. The retention for all backups is 60 days.
Which configuration of a Scale-out Backup Repository meets these requirements?
A. Copy mode
Performance Tier: Windows ReFS, immutability enabled
Capacity Tier: Amazon Simple Storage Service, immutability set for 60 days
B. Copy and move mode
Performance Tier: hardened repository, XFS. immutability enabled
Capacity Tier: Amazon Simple Storage Service, immutability set for 60 days
C. Copy and move mode
Performance Tier: Windows ReFS, immutability enabled
Capacity Tier: Amazon Simple Storage Service, immutability set for 60 days
D. Copy mode
Performance Tier: hardened repository, XFS. immutability enabled
Capacity Tier: Amazon S3, immutability set for 60 days
Answer: D
Explanation:
The optimal design is to leave your on-prem repo immutable (to guard against local malware) and simply copy every backup to AWS where it’s locked for 60 days. That way your performance tier keeps just the 21 days you need, and your capacity tier holds the full 60-day chain immutably.
Performance Tier: hardened repository on Linux (XFS) with immutability enabled (to protect the first 21 days of backups).
Capacity Tier: Amazon S3 with object-lock immutability set for 60 days (to archive the entire 60-day chain).
QUESTION 171
A customer is backing up to a Scale-out Backup Repository with the Capacity Tier located in Azure and now also wants to leverage the lowest per-gigabyte tier of Azure Blob.
Which feature would be required to complete this task?
A. Archiver appliance
B. Immutable API plug-in
C. Cloud mover
D. Remote socket channel
Answer: C
Explanation:
To tier backups off into Azure’s lowest-cost archive tier, you’ll be leveraging Veeam’s Capacity Tier functionality, and under the covers that uses the Cloud Mover service to push and pull data from object storage and manage moving it into the Archive tier.
QUESTION 172
An organization has been backing up their workloads to a Windows 2016 server (REFS). After a competitor was hit by ransomware, the engineer decided to make all backups immutable to secure them. The engineer has built a new hardened repository with XFS as a standalone backup repository.
Which action should the engineer take to migrate the backup files to the new repository?
A. Use Quick Migrate to move the backups to the new hardened repository.
B. Right-click on each backup job and use the “Move” backup option to migrate them to the new hardened repository.
C. Edit the backup job and change the target to the new backup repository.
D. Right-click on the Windows repository and select “Evacuate to”, then select the new hardened repository.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The “Evacuate” action will move all existing backup files (and their metadata) from the old ReFS repository to your new XFS-based hardened repo, preserving immutability and retention settings without re-running the jobs.
QUESTION 173
Which of the following is supported for backup with Veeam V12.1?
A. NFS File Share
B. ESXi Hosts
C. HP/UX
D. AS/400
Answer: AB
Explanation:
The supported backup sources in Veeam Backup & Replication v12.1 include both NFS file shares and VMware ESXi hosts, but not HP/UX or AS/400 systems.
NFS File Share – Veeam v12.1 can back up unstructured data directly from NFS file shares via its File Share backup job.
ESXi Hosts – VMware ESXi (part of the vSphere platform) is fully supported as a backup source in Veeam v12.1.
QUESTION 174
An administrator arrives at a remote site to install Veeam Backup & Replication on a physical server. During login, the administrator discovers that the mouse control is no longer working.
How can the installation process be successfully completed?
A. Use the keyboard to issue PowerShell commands for a silent install.
B. Restore the configuration backup file to C:\ and then install from the Veeam ISO.
C. Deliver predefined commands and install via PowerShell to execute the command in the virtual environment.
D. Boot from the Veeam ISO leveraging the silent, unattended installation feature.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The installation can be driven entirely from the keyboard by kicking off Veeam’s unattended (silent) installer via PowerShell.
You simply run the Veeam.Silent.Install.exe (or call the MSI directly with msiexec.exe /qn …) along with an XML answer file, all from the console – no mouse needed.
QUESTION 175
A backup administrator finds that some replica jobs are missing from the Veeam configuration. The administrator wants to roll back the configuration database.
How is this accomplished?
A. Restore using Veeam Explorer for Microsoft SQL Server.
B. Migrate the configuration database.
C. Restore the configuration database.
D. Use Instant Database Recovery.
Answer: C
Explanation:
In practice you would launch the “Configuration Restore” wizard in the VBR console, point it at the desired configuration backup file (created by your scheduled config-backup job), and follow the prompts to restore your database to the chosen point in time.
QUESTION 176
Which recovery capability is available for Continuous Data Protection replication?
A. The replica virtual machine can be restored to a state a few seconds or minutes earlier.
B. The replica virtual machine can be powered on even if the Veeam Backup & Replication server is unavailable
C. The replica virtual machine can be synched in real time.
D. The replica virtual machine can be application consistent as frequently as every 15 minutes.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The key benefit of Veeam’s Continuous Data Protection is its ultra-fine recovery points – allowing you to roll your replica back to any state just seconds or minutes before a failure.
QUESTION 177
Which feature of Veeam Data Platform allows a service provider to protect mission-critical tenant virtual machines for which any data loss is unacceptable?
A. DataLabs
B. Veeam Backup for Google Cloud
C. Cloud Agents
D. Continuous Data Protection
Answer: D
Explanation:
Continuous Data Protection, which provides near-zero RPO by continuously replicating I/O so that mission-critical tenant VMs can be recovered to within seconds or minutes of any failure.
QUESTION 178
What does Veeam Cloud Connect provide when connecting to a Veeam Cloud Service Provider?
A. Secure connectivity to the provider across public internet
B. Active failover for the Veeam Backup S Replication server
C. Service provider management of customer backup jobs
D. Access to reporting about the backup jobs
Answer: A
Explanation:
Veeam Cloud Connect’s core value is to establish a built-in, TLS-encrypted tunnel between your Veeam Backup & Replication site and the Cloud Service Provider, eliminating the need to configure VPNs or open inbound firewall ports. This secure connectivity enables offsite backups and replication over the public Internet.
QUESTION 179
What does Veeam Cloud Connect provide when connecting to a Veeam Cloud Service Provider?
A. Secure connectivity to the provider across public internet
B. Active failover for the Veeam Backup S Replication server
C. Service provider management of customer backup jobs
D. Access to reporting about the backup jobs
Answer: A
Explanation:
Veeam Cloud Connect’s core value is to establish a built-in, TLS-encrypted tunnel between your Veeam Backup & Replication site and the Cloud Service Provider, eliminating the need to configure VPNs or open inbound firewall ports. This secure connectivity enables offsite backups and replication over the public Internet.
QUESTION 180
A critical database used for company operations cannot lose more than 15 minutes worth of data transactions.
Which rule is being defined?
A. It is a recovery time objective. It identifies the limit to how many minutes of transactions can be lost.
B. It is a recovery point objective. It identifies when the restore must be completed after the failure occurs.
C. It is a recovery point objective. It defines the maximum acceptable loss of transaction activity.
D. It is a recovery time objective. It identifies how fast the database must be recovered after a failure.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The requirement that no more than 15 minutes of transaction data may be lost defines your Recovery Point Objective (RPO) – i.e. the maximum acceptable data-loss window.
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